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400-101 Product Description:
Exam Number/Code: 400-101 vce
Exam name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
n questions with full explanations
Certification: Cisco Certification
Last updated on Global synchronizing
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2016 Jun 400-101 error:
Q331. Which two statements about BGP best-path selection are true? (Choose two.)
A. The route with the highest local preference is preferred.
B. The weight attribute is advertised to peers.
C. The route with the lowest MED is preferred.
D. A route that originates from iBGP peers is preferred.
E. A route that originates from a router with a higher BGP router ID is preferred.
F. The lowest weight advertised is preferred.
Q332. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two issues can cause the interface VLAN10 to be down/down? (Choose two.)
A. The VLAN is inactive or has been removed from the VLAN database.
B. STP is in a forwarding state on the port.
C. A Layer 2 access port is configured with VLAN10, but is in a down/down state.
D. The autostate exclude feature was used on interface VLAN10.
Q333. In a PfR environment, which two statements best describe the difference between active mode monitoring and fast mode monitoring? (Choose two.)
A. Active mode monitoring can monitor and measure actual traffic via NetFlow data collection.
B. Fast mode monitoring can measure bursty traffic better than active mode.
C. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for the purpose of obtaining performance characteristics of the current WAN exit link.
D. Fast mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes via all valid exits continuously to quickly determine an alternate exit link.
PfR uses Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements (SLAs) to enable active monitoring. IP SLAs support is enabled by default. IP SLAs support allows PfR to be configured to send active probes to target IP addresses to measure the jitter and delay, determining if a prefix is out-of-policy and if the best exit is selected. The border router collects these performance statistics from the active probe and transmits this information to the master controller.
Fast Failover Monitoring
Fast failover monitoring enables passive and active monitoring and sets the active probes to continuously monitor all the exits (probe-all). Fast failover monitoring can be used with all types of active probes: Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo, jitter, TCP connection, and UDP echo.
Q334. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement is true?
A. BGP peer 10.1.2.3 is performing inbound filtering.
B. BGP peer 10.1.2.3 is a route reflector.
C. R1 is a route reflector, but BGP peer 10.1.2.3 is not a route reflector client.
D. R1 still needs to send an update to the BGP peer 10.1.2.3.
On R1 the routing table version (Tbl Ver) for 10.1.2.3 is 1, other routers have version 2, so it needs to send an update to the 10.1.2.3 peer.
Q335. On a network using RIPng, the prefix field of a routing table entry has a value of 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0. What does this value signify?
A. The next hop address is unknown.
B. The next hop address is a site-local address.
C. The neighboring router has IPv6 ND disabled.
D. The next hop address must be the originator of the route advertisement.
E. The associated route follows a default route out of the network.
Improve actualtests 400-101:
Q336. Which two options are mandatory components of a multiprotocol BGP VPN-IPv4 address? (Choose two.)
A. a route distinguisher
B. an IPv4 address
C. a route target
D. an MPLS label
E. a system ID
F. an area ID
The IP prefix is a member of the IPv4 address family. After the PE device learns the IP prefix, the PE converts it into a VPN-IPv4 prefix by combining it with an 8-byte route distinguisher (RD). The generated prefix is a member of the VPN-IPv4 address family. It uniquely identifies the customer address, even if the customer site is using globally nonunique (unregistered private) IP addresses. The route distinguisher used to generate the VPN-IPv4 prefix is specified by a configuration command associated with the virtual routing and forwarding (VRF) instance on the PE device.
Q337. Refer to the exhibit.
ASN 64523 has a multihomed BGP setup to ISP A and ISP B. Which BGP attribute can you set to allow traffic that originates in ASN 64523 to exit the ASN through ISP B?
D. multi-exit discriminator
MED is an optional nontransitive attribute. MED is a hint to external neighbors about the preferred path into an autonomous system (AS) that has multiple entry points. The MED is also known as the external metric of a route. A lower MED value is preferred over a higher value. Example at reference link below:
Q338. Which configuration sets a minimum quality of service on a Layer 2 access switch?
A. mls qos cos override
mls qos cos 2
B. mls qos cos 2
C. mls qos trust cos
mls qos cos 2
D. mls qos trust cos
E. mls qos trust dscp
The mls qos cos override interface command must be used to ensure that untrusted CoS values are explicitly set 0 (default).
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/QoS_SRND/Qo S-SRND-Book/QoSDesign.html
Q339. Which two actions can you take to recover an interface in a errdisable state? (Choose two.)
A. Enable UDLD on the switch.
B. Enable errdisable recovery on the switch.
C. Execute the shutdown command on the interface, followed by the no shutdown command.
D. Remove the related commands from the configuration and reenter them.
E. Enable loop guard on the switch.
Q340. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the path-selection criteria on the left into the correct route-selection order on the right, that a router will use when having multiple routes toward the same destination.
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